Some time ago, I made a thread on Twitter like I always do on two topics that particularly interest me; Feminism and the Bible.
It is believed that the bible is anti-feminism and any true christian woman must reject feminism but I say, in my most controversial words; you lie. Several verses in the bible preaches egalitarianism, an example of which is the book of Galatians chapter 3 and verse 28 which says in the New International translation, "There is neither Jew nor Gentile, neither slave nor free, nor is there male and female, for you are all one in Christ Jesus."
Despite the bible's egalitarianism in some parts, there are several bible verses that promote patriarchy. One of which, if taken without context, is 1 Corinthians 11. The content of that chapter like many other bible verses, I believe, must have been lost in translation. Please look closely below as I break down why I believe this is so.
It would appear, in the screenshots below, that those words were Apostle Paul's actual (inspired) belief, according to the phrasing
Quick paraphrase: Men (males) were made in God's likeness whilst women were made FOR men.
Please do note that the entire chapter is about whether or not women need to cover their heads while praying or prophesying. Verse 7: a man indeed ought not to cover his head, forasmuch as he is the image and glory of God: but the woman is the glory of the man.
Now look on further below at the screenshot of vs 11-16
Keyword: NEVERTHELESS which could be Apostle Paul's passive aggressive way of saying "Oh for the love of God, you sexist pricks.""Neither is the man without the woman or the woman without the man..." wait for it ... IN THE LORD. And it continues, "For as the woman is of the man," *at this point he rolls his eyes* SO IS THE MAN OF THE WOMAN." Is that... is that equality I smell?
Now look how Apostle Paul tactfully asked, "Judge for yourselves...
He was not done yet. He went on to say, "But if any man seem to be CONENTIOUS, we have no such CUSTOM, neither the churches of God."
Now would it not appear that verses 1-10 were a reference to the customs of the people of Corinth being infiltrated into the congregation? Would it not appear that this infiltration was causing division amongst the brethren? Would it not appear that Vs 11-16 was the Apostle Paul tactfully setting them straight? Tactfully pointing out that such customs should not be found amongst followers of Christ?
Remember again that he said this, "Neither is the man without the woman or the woman without the man in the Lord. Remember yet again that he also said this; WE HAVE NO SUCH CUSTOM. We have no such custom WHERE brethren?
- IN THE LORD
-IN THE CHURCHES OF GOD
The point here is, the books in the Bible, like every other book, must be read in context. One verse is just a line of a chapter. One chapter is just a page from a book. Remember, also, that the Bible has been translated several times and language can be tricky.